>Has anyone any thoughts on how the Aeneid was presented and consumed
>in the Empire, especially in the time of Augustus himself?
>
>Assuming a ten per cent literacy rate, was it simply an elite product?
>Or was it designed (given its metrical structure) to be publicly performed?
>
>Somebody asked this at a tutorial this morning and nobody had an answer.
>Your opinions, Citizens, would be much appreciated.
>
>Valete bene,
>
>Vado.
There are a couple of things to remember about the Roman Republic. First
off, assuming a 10% literacy rate, maybe only 10-15% of the vote actually
counted, and these were the upper classes who were educated and also the
ones who were targeted for the propoganda of Augustus (not an insult to him,
I like Augustus a lot, but he was a master of propoganda). The common man
had a vote, but it was weighted so that it would not count actually. As for
whether this was written to make Augustus look better, the answer is yes.
There is a part of the book where Aeneas goes down with the shades and he
sees a youth on a hill who is meant to represent Augustus, and he is
pictured as the culmination of all the great Romans to come before. As for
public performance, I have my own doubts, but I suppose it is possible. My
gut tells me that it was meant to trickle down through society as it was
bound to do considering how many people lived so close together, but again,
that is just my gut instinct. My two cents at least...
Jason
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